Which one of the following statement is meaningless?

MATHEMATICS · Single correct · CBSE · Mathematics · Inverse Trigonometric Functions · Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Problem

Which one of the following statement is meaningless? (1) cos⁡−1(ln⁡(2e+43))\cos^{-1}\left(\ln\left(\frac{2e+4}{3}\right)\right) (2) cosec⁡−1(π3)\operatorname{cosec}^{-1}\left(\frac{\pi}{3}\right) (3) cot⁡−1(π2)\cot^{-1}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) (4) sec⁡−1(π)\sec^{-1}(\pi)

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