Let and , each of which converges for . Which statement about the Maclaurin series of…

MATHEMATICS · Single correct · AP · Calculus BC · Infinite Sequences and Series · Infinite Sequences and Series

Problem

Let f(x)=∑n=0∞anxnf(x)=\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_n x^{n} and g(x)=∑n=0∞bnxng(x)=\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}b_n x^{n}, each of which converges for ∣x∣<2|x|<2. Which statement about the Maclaurin series of h(x)=f(x)+g(x)h(x)=f(x)+g(x) and k(x)=f(x)g(x)k(x)=f(x)g(x) is true? (a) The series for h(x)h(x) converges for ∣x∣<2|x|<2, but the series for k(x)k(x) converges only for ∣x∣<1|x|<1. (b) Both series for h(x)h(x) and k(x)k(x) converge for all real xx.},{ (c) Both series for h(x)h(x) and k(x)k(x) converge for ∣x∣<2|x|<2.},{ (d) The series for h(x)h(x) converges for ∣x∣<1|x|<1, while the series for k(x)k(x) converges for ∣x∣<2|x|<2.}],

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