Let and , each of which converges for . Which statement about the Maclaurin series of…
MATHEMATICS · Single correct · AP · Calculus BC · Infinite Sequences and Series · Infinite Sequences and Series
Problem
Let f(x)=n=0∑∞anxn and g(x)=n=0∑∞bnxn, each of which converges for ∣x∣<2. Which statement about the Maclaurin series of h(x)=f(x)+g(x) and k(x)=f(x)g(x) is true?
(a) The series for h(x) converges for ∣x∣<2, but the series for k(x) converges only for ∣x∣<1.
(b) Both series for h(x) and k(x) converge for all real x.},{
(c) Both series for h(x) and k(x) converge for ∣x∣<2.},{
(d) The series for h(x) converges for ∣x∣<1, while the series for k(x) converges for ∣x∣<2.}],