Which of the following is always true for an invertible function and its inverse ?

MATHEMATICS · Single correct · CBSE · Mathematics · Relations and Functions · Relations and Functions

Problem

Which of the following is always true for an invertible function f:X→Yf:X\to Y and its inverse f−1f^{-1}? (a) f−1(f(x))=x for all x∈Yf^{-1}(f(x))=x \text{ for all } x\in Y (b) f(f−1(y))=y for all y∈Y and Dom⁡(f−1)=Yf(f^{-1}(y))=y \text{ for all } y\in Y \text{ and } \operatorname{Dom}(f^{-1})=Y (c) Dom⁡(f−1)=X and Ran⁡(f−1)=Y\operatorname{Dom}(f^{-1})=X \text{ and } \operatorname{Ran}(f^{-1})=Y (d) f−1(y)=1f(y)f^{-1}(y)=\dfrac{1}{f(y)}

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