Which of the following best explains why the series converges to a finite value?

MATHEMATICS · Single correct · AP · Calculus BC · Infinite Sequences and Series · Infinite Sequences and Series

Problem

Which of the following best explains why the series 6⋅10−2+6⋅10−4+6⋅10−6+…6\cdot10^{-2} + 6\cdot10^{-4} + 6\cdot10^{-6} + \dots converges to a finite value? (a) Because 6⋅10−2n=6102n\displaystyle 6\cdot10^{-2n}=\frac{6}{10^{2n}} is of the form knp\dfrac{k}{n^{p}} with p=2>1p=2>1, the series is a pp-series that converges. (b) Because the terms decrease to 00, adding them infinitely many times must give a finite sum, so the series converges. (c) The absolute value of its common ratio is 10−2<110^{-2}<1, so an infinite geometric series formula applies and the sum converges. (d) The ratio test gives lim⁡n→∞an+1an=10−2<1\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}=10^{-2}<1. Since the limit is less than 1, the ratio test is inconclusive, but the terms go to 0, so the series converges.

Related theory

Browse the problem library