Let be a differentiable one-to-one function with inverse

MATHEMATICS · Single correct · AP · Calculus AB · Differentiation: Composite, Implicit, and Inverse Functions · Differentiation: Composite, Implicit, and Inverse Functions

Problem

Let ff be a differentiable one-to-one function with inverse gg. Which of the following best justifies that the slopes of the graphs of ff and gg at corresponding points are reciprocals? (a) Because differentiating f(g(x))=xf(g(x))=x gives f′(g(x))=1g′(x)f'(g(x)) = \dfrac{1}{g'(x)}, it follows that g′(x)=f′(g(x))g'(x)=f'(g(x)), so the slopes are equal at corresponding points. (b) Because the equation f(g(x))=xf(g(x))=x differentiates to f′(g(x)) g′(x)=1f'(g(x))\,g'(x)=1, the chain rule forces g′(x)=1f′(g(x))g'(x)=\dfrac{1}{f'(g(x))}. (c) Because ff and gg are reflections across the xx-axis, their slopes differ by a factor of −1-1.},{ (d) Because the Mean Value Theorem guarantees some cc with f′(c)=g′(c)f'(c)=g'(c), the slopes must therefore be reciprocals for all cc.

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