Binomial theorem for positive integral indices

Multiply out (a+b)6(a+b)^6 term by term and you will make a mistake somewhere — six brackets, sixty-four partial products to track by hand. The binomial theorem removes that grind entirely: it hands you every term of (a+b)n(a+b)^n, coefficient and all, in one formula, for any positive whole number nn. The coefficients are not mysterious either — they are exactly the numbers in Pascal's triangle, so a student who can build a few rows of that triangle can write down the full expansion of (a+b)5(a+b)^5 or (a+b)6(a+b)^6 without multiplying anything. This article states the theorem, proves it by induction, shows why the coefficients form Pascal's triangle, and uses the expansion to compute a large power without long multiplication — a genuinely useful shortcut, not just an algebra exercise.

The core insight

(a+b)n(a+b)^n expands into exactly n+1n+1 terms whose coefficients are the binomial coefficients nCk=n!k!(n−k)!{}^nC_k = \dfrac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}, the same numbers that fill row nn of Pascal's triangle.

The core idea

For any real numbers a,ba, b and any positive integer nn, the binomial theorem states that (a+b)n(a+b)^n expands as a sum of n+1n+1 terms, with the power of aa falling from nn to 00 and the power of bb rising from 00 to nn across the sum:

(a+b)n=∑k=0nnCk an−kbk=nC0 an+nC1 an−1b+⋯+nCn bn(a+b)^n = \sum_{k=0}^{n} {}^nC_k\, a^{n-k}b^k = {}^nC_0\,a^n + {}^nC_1\,a^{n-1}b + \cdots + {}^nC_n\,b^n

where: nn is the (positive integer) index, kk runs from 00 to nn over each term, and nCk=n!k!(n−k)!{}^nC_k = \dfrac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} (also written (nk)\binom{n}{k}) is the binomial coefficient, the count of ways to choose kk objects from nn. Three structural facts turn this abstract sum into something you can read off by eye. First, term count: (a+b)n(a+b)^n always has n+1n+1 terms, not nn — a favourite place to lose a mark. Second, symmetry: nCk=nCn−k{}^nC_k = {}^nC_{n-k}, so the coefficients read the same forwards and backwards, e.g. row 44 is 1,4,6,4,11, 4, 6, 4, 1. Third, the sign flip: replacing bb by −b-b gives (a−b)n=∑k=0n(−1)k nCk an−kbk(a-b)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k\,{}^nC_k\,a^{n-k}b^k, so the signs alternate +,−,+,−,…+,-,+,-,\dots while the coefficients themselves stay unchanged. Those coefficients are exactly the rows of Pascal's triangle: row nn lists nC0,nC1,…,nCn{}^nC_0, {}^nC_1, \dots, {}^nC_n, and each entry equals the sum of the two entries diagonally above it in the row before, which is just the algebraic identity nCr−1+nCr=n+1Cr{}^nC_{r-1} + {}^nC_r = {}^{n+1}C_r. This makes the triangle a fast, error-free way to read off coefficients for small nn without ever computing a factorial: start from row 00 (just the single entry 11), and build each new row by adding adjacent pairs from the row above, with a 11 fixed at each end. There is also a counting meaning worth keeping: thinking of (a+b)n(a+b)^n as nn brackets (a+b)(a+b)⋯(a+b)(a+b)(a+b)\cdots(a+b) multiplied out, each final term comes from choosing either aa or bb from every bracket, and nCk{}^nC_k counts how many of those choices put bb in exactly kk of the brackets — which is also why the coefficients must sum to 2n2^n when a=b=1a=b=1. Historically, expansions for small nn were known in China, Persia and India centuries before Blaise Pascal, and the general statement for positive integral indices was fully established in Europe by the seventeenth century; what the theorem buys a student today is the same shortcut it always was — one formula instead of repeated multiplication.

Figure
Pascal triangle rows zero to five aligned above the matching binomial coefficients of a plus b to the power n
Pascal's triangle rows = binomial coefficients of (a+b)^n each entry is the sum of the two numbers above it 1 11 121 1331 14641 15101051 n=0 n=1 n=2 n=3 n=4 n=5 Row 4 gives (a+b)^4 = a^4 + 4a^3b + 6a^2b^2 + 4ab^3 + b^4 Row n has n+1 entries, symmetric left to right
Derivation AProving the binomial theorem for a positive integral index

Prove that for every positive integer nn and all real a,ba, b, the expansion (a+b)n=∑k=0nnCk an−kbk(a+b)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n {}^nC_k\,a^{n-k}b^k holds, using the principle of mathematical induction together with the Pascal's-triangle identity nCr−1+nCr=n+1Cr{}^nC_{r-1} + {}^nC_r = {}^{n+1}C_r, so that the whole infinite family of statements — one for every nn — is established from a single base case and a single inductive step.

Step 1. Check the base case n=1n=1. The formula gives (a+b)1=1C0 a+1C1 b=a+b(a+b)^1 = {}^1C_0\,a + {}^1C_1\,b = a + b, since 1C0=1C1=1{}^1C_0 = {}^1C_1 = 1. This matches (a+b)1=a+b(a+b)^1 = a+b exactly, so the statement holds for n=1n=1.

Step 2. Assume the statement is true for some positive integer n=mn = m; this is the induction hypothesis: (a+b)m=∑k=0mmCk am−kbk(a+b)^m = \sum_{k=0}^m {}^mC_k\,a^{m-k}b^k. The goal is now to show the same form holds for n=m+1n = m+1, using only this assumption and ordinary algebra.

Step 3. Multiply both sides by (a+b)(a+b). On the left, (a+b)m+1=(a+b)⋅(a+b)m(a+b)^{m+1} = (a+b)\cdot(a+b)^m. On the right, distribute (a+b)(a+b) over the sum from Step 2: each term mCk am−kbk{}^mC_k\,a^{m-k}b^k produces an aa-multiple mCk am−k+1bk{}^mC_k\,a^{m-k+1}b^k and a bb-multiple mCk am−kbk+1{}^mC_k\,a^{m-k}b^{k+1}.

Step 4. Collect the two contributions that share the same power am+1−rbra^{m+1-r}b^r: one comes from the aa-multiple of the term with k=rk=r (coefficient mCr{}^mC_r) and one from the bb-multiple of the term with k=r−1k=r-1 (coefficient mCr−1{}^mC_{r-1}). Their sum is mCr−1+mCr{}^mC_{r-1} + {}^mC_r, which by the Pascal's-triangle identity equals m+1Cr{}^{m+1}C_r exactly. So the coefficient of am+1−rbra^{m+1-r}b^r in (a+b)m+1(a+b)^{m+1} is m+1Cr{}^{m+1}C_r, which is precisely the binomial theorem formula for n=m+1n = m+1.

Step 5. Conclude. The statement holds for n=1n=1 (Step 1), and whenever it holds for n=mn=m it also holds for n=m+1n=m+1 (Steps 2 to 4). By the principle of mathematical induction, it holds for every positive integer nn, which is the binomial theorem for positive integral indices.

Worked example

Use the binomial theorem to evaluate (101)3(101)^3 without direct multiplication, then extend the same trick to (99)4(99)^4.

Step 1. Write 101=100+1101 = 100+1, so (101)3=(100+1)3(101)^3 = (100+1)^3 with a=100a=100, b=1b=1, n=3n=3. Row 33 of Pascal's triangle gives coefficients 1,3,3,11, 3, 3, 1.

Step 2. Expand: (100+1)3=3C0(100)3+3C1(100)2(1)+3C2(100)(1)2+3C3(1)3=1,000,000+30,000+300+1(100+1)^3 = {}^3C_0(100)^3 + {}^3C_1(100)^2(1) + {}^3C_2(100)(1)^2 + {}^3C_3(1)^3 = 1{,}000{,}000 + 30{,}000 + 300 + 1.

Step 3. Add the terms: 1,000,000+30,000+300+1=1,030,3011{,}000{,}000 + 30{,}000 + 300 + 1 = 1{,}030{,}301. So (101)3=1,030,301(101)^3 = 1{,}030{,}301.

Competitive stretch

Step 1. For (99)4(99)^4, write 99=100−199 = 100 - 1, so (99)4=(100−1)4(99)^4 = (100-1)^4 with a=100a=100, b=1b=1, n=4n=4, using the alternating form since bb is being subtracted: row 44 gives coefficients 1,4,6,4,11,4,6,4,1 with signs +,−,+,−,++,-,+,-,+.

Step 2. Expand: (100−1)4=(100)4−4(100)3(1)+6(100)2(1)2−4(100)(1)3+(1)4=100,000,000−4,000,000+60,000−400+1(100-1)^4 = (100)^4 - 4(100)^3(1) + 6(100)^2(1)^2 - 4(100)(1)^3 + (1)^4 = 100{,}000{,}000 - 4{,}000{,}000 + 60{,}000 - 400 + 1.

Step 3. Add with signs: 100,000,000−4,000,000+60,000−400+1=96,059,601100{,}000{,}000 - 4{,}000{,}000 + 60{,}000 - 400 + 1 = 96{,}059{,}601, so (99)4=96,059,601(99)^4 = 96{,}059{,}601 — the same round-number trick, only with the alternating-sign form.

Common traps

  • Forgetting the sign pattern in (a−b)n(a-b)^n. All-positive signs is the default mistake; signs must alternate starting with ++ for the ana^n term.
  • Miscounting the number of terms. (a+b)n(a+b)^n has n+1n+1 terms, not nn — a common slip is stopping one term early.
  • Swapping which power decreases. The power of aa falls from nn to 00 while bb's power rises from 00 to nn; reversing this gives a wrong expansion even with correct coefficients.
  • Sloppy coefficient arithmetic. Forgetting nC0=nCn=1{}^nC_0 = {}^nC_n = 1, or miscalculating n!k!(n−k)!\frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} by hand instead of reading Pascal's triangle, is a frequent source of errors.

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Why does the induction proof need the Pascal's-triangle identity, not just algebra?

The inductive step multiplies the row-mm expansion by (a+b)(a+b) and gets two contributions to each new power of aa and bb — one from an aa-multiple, one from a bb-multiple of the previous row. Those two contributions are mCr−1{}^mC_{r-1} and mCr{}^mC_r, and you need to know their sum equals m+1Cr{}^{m+1}C_r to match the target formula. That fact is exactly the Pascal's-triangle rule "each entry is the sum of the two above it," so the induction and the triangle are really the same statement seen two ways.

Do I need to memorise every row of Pascal's triangle for the exam?

No — you only need to be able to build a row from the one before it, since each entry is the sum of the two entries diagonally above. Start from row 00 (just 11) and add pairs going down; for most CBSE Class 11 questions you will need at most row 66 or 77, which takes seconds to write out this way rather than computing n!k!(n−k)!\frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} from scratch each time.

Why bother with the round-number trick for things like 101 cubed instead of just multiplying it out?

Direct multiplication of 101×101×101101 \times 101 \times 101 works but is slow and error-prone by hand. Writing 101=100+1101 = 100+1 turns the problem into powers of a round number, 100100, which are trivial to compute (1002=10,000100^2 = 10{,}000, 1003=1,000,000100^3 = 1{,}000{,}000), so the binomial theorem replaces messy multiplication with a short addition. The same idea works for any number close to a power of 1010, like 99,99899, 998, or 10021002.

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Where this leads