Potential well

Trap a quantum particle between two walls and something strange happens: it can no longer have just any energy. Only certain discrete energies are allowed, as if the particle were forced onto rungs of a ladder rather than a smooth ramp. This is the potential well — the simplest model in quantum mechanics for seeing confinement produce quantization directly from the Schrödinger equation and two boundary conditions. Make the walls infinitely tall and the problem is exactly solvable: energies, wavefunctions, everything in closed form. Make them finite and the wavefunction leaks a little beyond the walls, bound states become limited in number, and energies shift slightly downward. Both pictures recur everywhere confinement matters — electrons in atoms, nucleons in nuclei, carriers in semiconductor devices.

The core insight

Confining a particle to a finite region with rigid boundary conditions forces its wavefunction into standing-wave patterns, so only discrete energies En∝n2E_n \propto n^2 survive.

The core idea

Setting up the infinite well. A particle of mass mm moves freely inside 0≤x≤L0 \le x \le L but is completely excluded from outside, where V(x)=∞V(x) = \infty. Because the particle can never be found outside, the wavefunction must vanish at the edges:

ϕ(0)=0,ϕ(L)=0.\phi(0) = 0, \qquad \phi(L) = 0.

where: ϕ(x)\phi(x) is the spatial wavefunction and LL is the well width. These are boundary conditions, not assumptions — they follow from ϕ=0\phi = 0 wherever V=∞V = \infty, plus continuity of ϕ\phi.

Solving inside the well. With V=0V = 0 inside, the time-independent Schrödinger equation becomes −ℏ22md2ϕdx2=Eϕ-\dfrac{\hbar^2}{2m}\dfrac{d^2\phi}{dx^2} = E\phi, a simple harmonic-oscillator-type equation in space rather than time. Its general solution is ϕ(x)=Asin⁡(kx)+Bcos⁡(kx)\phi(x) = A\sin(kx) + B\cos(kx) with k=2mE/ℏk = \sqrt{2mE}/\hbar. The condition ϕ(0)=0\phi(0)=0 kills the cosine term (B=0B=0); the condition ϕ(L)=0\phi(L)=0 then forces sin⁡(kL)=0\sin(kL)=0, which only happens at kL=nπkL = n\pi for a positive integer nn. Quantizing kk quantizes the energy through E=ℏ2k2/2mE = \hbar^2k^2/2m.

Why n cannot be zero. n=0n=0 gives ϕ≡0\phi \equiv 0 everywhere, meaning no particle at all, so it is excluded. The lowest physically allowed state is n=1n=1, and it carries strictly positive energy — a zero-point energy forced by confinement plus the uncertainty principle: squeezing the particle to Δx∼L\Delta x \sim L requires Δp\Delta p, and hence kinetic energy, to be nonzero.

Finite well — a qualitative picture. Replace the infinite walls with walls of finite height V0V_0. Outside the well, where classically the particle has no business being (E<V0E < V_0), the wavefunction no longer cuts off sharply — it decays exponentially, the same mathematics as barrier tunneling. Two consequences follow directly: the well now supports only a finite number of bound states (past some nn, the required energy would exceed V0V_0), and each allowed energy sits slightly below the corresponding infinite-well value, because the wavefunction effectively spreads over more than width LL, lowering its curvature and kinetic energy.

Figure
Sketch comparing the lowest three standing wave patterns inside an infinite well against a finite well where the wavefunction leaks past the walls
Standing waves in a well: infinite walls versus finite walls infinite well n=1 n=2 phi = 0 exactly at both walls finite well phi leaks past the finite walls and decays
Derivation AQuantized energy of the infinite square well

The goal is to show, starting only from the time-independent Schrödinger equation and the two boundary conditions forced by infinite walls, that a confined particle can carry only the discrete energies En=n2π2ℏ2/(2mL2)E_n = n^2\pi^2\hbar^2/(2mL^2) for positive integers nn, and to obtain the normalized wavefunction that goes with each one.

Step 1. Write the time-independent Schrödinger equation inside the well, where V=0V=0: −ℏ22md2ϕdx2=Eϕ-\dfrac{\hbar^2}{2m}\dfrac{d^2\phi}{dx^2} = E\phi. This is a second-order linear equation whose general solution is ϕ(x)=Asin⁡(kx)+Bcos⁡(kx)\phi(x) = A\sin(kx) + B\cos(kx), with k=2mE/ℏk = \sqrt{2mE}/\hbar fixed by substituting back in.

Step 2. Apply the boundary condition ϕ(0)=0\phi(0) = 0. Since sin⁡(0)=0\sin(0)=0 and cos⁡(0)=1\cos(0)=1, this forces B=0B=0, leaving ϕ(x)=Asin⁡(kx)\phi(x) = A\sin(kx).

Step 3. Apply the second boundary condition ϕ(L)=0\phi(L)=0. This requires Asin⁡(kL)=0A\sin(kL)=0; since A=0A=0 would give no particle, the physical requirement is sin⁡(kL)=0\sin(kL)=0, satisfied only when kL=nπkL = n\pi for a positive integer nn. This is the quantization step — only these discrete values of kk, and no others, produce a wavefunction that vanishes at both walls simultaneously.

Step 4. Convert quantized kk into quantized energy using E=ℏ2k2/2mE = \hbar^2k^2/2m with k=nπ/Lk = n\pi/L:

En=n2π2ℏ22mL2,n=1,2,3,…E_n = \frac{n^2\pi^2\hbar^2}{2mL^2}, \qquad n = 1, 2, 3, \dots

where: EnE_n is the energy of level nn, ℏ\hbar is the reduced Planck constant, mm is the particle mass, and LL is the well width.

Step 5. Normalize. Requiring ∫0L∣ϕ(x)∣2 dx=1\int_0^L |\phi(x)|^2\,dx = 1 with ∫0Lsin⁡2(nπx/L) dx=L/2\int_0^L \sin^2(n\pi x/L)\,dx = L/2 gives A=2/LA = \sqrt{2/L}, so the final normalized wavefunctions are

ϕn(x)=2L sin⁡ ⁣(nπxL).\phi_n(x) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\,\sin\!\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right).

Worked example

An electron sits in an infinite square well of width L=0.20 nmL = 0.20\ \text{nm}, an atomic-scale trap. Find E1E_1 and E2E_2 in eV, the wavelength of a photon emitted in the n=2→n=1n=2 \to n=1 transition, and the probability of finding the ground-state electron in the central third of the well.

Step 1 — ground-state energy. E1=π2ℏ22mL2E_1 = \dfrac{\pi^2\hbar^2}{2mL^2} with ℏ=1.055×10−34 J ⋅ s\hbar = 1.055\times10^{-34}\ \text{J}\,\cdot\,\text{s}, m=9.11×10−31 kgm = 9.11\times10^{-31}\ \text{kg}, L=0.20×10−9 mL = 0.20\times10^{-9}\ \text{m}. The numerator π2ℏ2=1.099×10−67\pi^2\hbar^2 = 1.099\times10^{-67}, the denominator 2mL2=7.29×10−502mL^2 = 7.29\times10^{-50}, so E1=1.51×10−18 J=9.4 eVE_1 = 1.51\times10^{-18}\ \text{J} = 9.4\ \text{eV}.

Step 2 — first excited state and transition. Since En∝n2E_n \propto n^2, E2=4E1=37.6 eVE_2 = 4E_1 = 37.6\ \text{eV}, and the transition energy is ΔE=E2−E1=3E1=28.2 eV=4.51×10−18 J\Delta E = E_2 - E_1 = 3E_1 = 28.2\ \text{eV} = 4.51\times10^{-18}\ \text{J}. Using ΔE=hc/λ\Delta E = hc/\lambda with h=6.63×10−34 J ⋅ sh = 6.63\times10^{-34}\ \text{J}\,\cdot\,\text{s} and c=3×108 m/sc = 3\times10^8\ \text{m/s}, λ=hc/ΔE=4.41×10−8 m=44.1 nm\lambda = hc/\Delta E = 4.41\times10^{-8}\ \text{m} = 44.1\ \text{nm}, in the ultraviolet.

Step 3 — probability in the central third. P=2L∫L/32L/3sin⁡2 ⁣(πxL)dxP = \dfrac{2}{L}\displaystyle\int_{L/3}^{2L/3}\sin^2\!\left(\frac{\pi x}{L}\right)dx. Using sin⁡2θ=12(1−cos⁡2θ)\sin^2\theta = \tfrac12(1-\cos2\theta) and evaluating the limits gives P=13+32π≈0.333+0.276=0.609P = \tfrac13 + \dfrac{\sqrt3}{2\pi} \approx 0.333 + 0.276 = 0.609.

Final answers: E1=9.4 eVE_1 = 9.4\ \text{eV}, E2=37.6 eVE_2 = 37.6\ \text{eV}, emitted photon λ=44.1 nm\lambda = 44.1\ \text{nm} (UV), and about 61%61\% probability in the central third — above the classical 1/31/3, since the n=1n=1 state peaks at the well's centre.

Competitive stretch

If the same electron instead sat in a finite well of the same width L=0.20 nmL=0.20\ \text{nm} and depth V0=50 eVV_0 = 50\ \text{eV}, both E1E_1 and E2E_2 would come out somewhat below 9.4 eV9.4\ \text{eV} and 37.6 eV37.6\ \text{eV} respectively (wavefunction leakage lowers curvature and hence kinetic energy), and since E2=37.6 eVE_2 = 37.6\ \text{eV} from the infinite-well estimate is comfortably below V0=50 eVV_0 = 50\ \text{eV}, both levels should still exist as bound states — but a third level near 42E1≈150 eV4^2E_1 \approx 150\ \text{eV} would exceed V0V_0 and therefore not be bound at all, illustrating the finite well's limited state count without needing the transcendental matching equations.

Common traps

  • Including n=0n=0 as an allowed state — it forces ϕ≡0\phi \equiv 0 everywhere, so the true ground state is always n=1n=1, never n=0n=0, and E1≠0E_1 \ne 0.
  • Assuming a finite well has infinitely many bound states like the infinite well — a finite well of given depth and width supports only a limited number.
  • Forgetting that outside a finite well ϕ(x)\phi(x) decays smoothly and exponentially rather than cutting off sharply — the walls are not perfectly reflecting.
  • Misapplying En∝n2E_n \propto n^2 to level spacing — the gap En+1−EnE_{n+1}-E_n grows with nn, it is not constant, unlike the evenly spaced harmonic oscillator.

Ask the tutor: Want to work through the normalization integral by hand, or check when a candidate energy level in a finite well would exceed V0V_0 and stop being bound — ask the AI tutor to walk it with you.

Why can the particle never have E = 0 in the infinite well?

E = 0 would mean k = 0, which forces the wavefunction ϕ(x)=Asin⁡(kx)\phi(x) = A\sin(kx) to vanish everywhere, not just at the walls — that is no particle at all, not a valid state. Physically, confining a particle to a region of size LL forces some minimum momentum spread by the uncertainty principle, so some minimum kinetic energy is unavoidable. This zero-point energy, E1=π2ℏ2/2mL2E_1 = \pi^2\hbar^2/2mL^2, is a genuine quantum effect with no classical counterpart, where a particle can sit motionless at the bottom of a well.

Does the finite well really need the full transcendental equations for this course?

No — PH11001 only expects the qualitative picture for the finite well: wavefunction leakage into the classically forbidden region outside the walls, a finite number of bound states, and energies pulled slightly below the infinite-well values. The transcendental equations that pin down the exact energies by matching the wavefunction and its slope at each wall are a heavier calculation kept out of this course's required scope, though it is worth knowing they exist and why matching is needed physically.

Why does the probability in Worked example step 3 come out above 1/3 instead of exactly 1/3?

A uniform (classical) particle bouncing between the walls would spend exactly 1/3 of its time in any equal third of the well, giving probability 1/3 there. But the n=1n=1 quantum wavefunction is not uniform — ϕ1(x)=2/Lsin⁡(πx/L)\phi_1(x) = \sqrt{2/L}\sin(\pi x/L) peaks at the exact centre of the well and vanishes at the edges, so probability is concentrated toward the middle. That is why the central third captures about 61%, noticeably more than the classical 1/3 guess.

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Where this leads