Products of consecutive integers

Pick any two whole numbers standing next to each other on the number line — say 1717 and 1818 — and multiply them. No matter which pair you choose, the answer is always even. Pick three neighbours in a row, like 8,9,108, 9, 10, and multiply all three, and the answer is always divisible by 66. These are not coincidences of the examples chosen; they are guaranteed properties that follow from how evenness and multiples of 33 are spaced out along the integers. This topic lives inside the Number Play chapter of Class 8 Mathematics, and it is one of the cleanest places to see parity and divisibility reasoning turned into a genuine proof. The tools are simple — writing consecutive integers as n,n+1,n+2,…n, n+1, n+2, \ldots and arguing by cases — but the payoff is a statement that holds for every choice of starting number, not just the ones you happened to test.

The core insight

Among any kk consecutive integers, one is always a multiple of 22 (for k≥2k \geq 2) and one is always a multiple of 33 (for k≥3k \geq 3), which is why the product of two consecutive integers is always even and the product of three consecutive integers is always divisible by 66.

The core idea

Consecutive integers are numbers that follow one another with no gaps, written algebraically as n,n+1,n+2,…n, n+1, n+2, \ldots for whatever whole number nn you start at. The whole argument in this topic rests on one spacing fact: multiples of 22 occur every second number, and multiples of 33 occur every third number.

Two consecutive integers, nn and n+1n+1. Because they differ by exactly 11, they can never both be even or both be odd — one is always even. Since even ×\times anything is even, the product is guaranteed to be even:

n(n+1)≡0(mod2) for every whole number n.n(n+1) \equiv 0 \pmod{2} \text{ for every whole number } n.

where: nn is any whole number, and the product n(n+1)n(n+1) denotes two consecutive integers multiplied together.

Three consecutive integers, nn, n+1n+1, n+2n+2. Any two neighbours inside this trio already supply a factor of 22, by the same reasoning as above. Separately, because multiples of 33 occur every third whole number (3,6,9,…3, 6, 9, \ldots), any block of three consecutive integers must contain exactly one multiple of 33 — it cannot skip past three numbers in a row without landing on one. Since 22 and 33 share no common factor (gcd⁡(2,3)=1\gcd(2,3)=1), having both factors present means the product is divisible by their combination:

n(n+1)(n+2)≡0(mod6) for every whole number n.n(n+1)(n+2) \equiv 0 \pmod{6} \text{ for every whole number } n.

where: 6=2×36 = 2 \times 3, and the congruence means the product leaves remainder 00 when divided by 66. The reasoning generalises informally: the product of kk consecutive integers is always divisible by k!k! (so four consecutive integers are always divisible by 2424), but Class 8 only needs the k=2k=2 and k=3k=3 cases, justified by cases rather than by formal modular arithmetic.

Figure
A number line marking three consecutive integers eight nine and ten with the multiple of two boxes and the multiple of three circled
Every block of three consecutive integers hides a multiple of 2 and a multiple of 3 7 8 9 10 11 even (8 and 10 supply factor of 2) multiple of 3 (only 9 qualifies)
Derivation AWhy three consecutive integers are always divisible by six

The goal is to show, for any three consecutive whole numbers n,n+1,n+2n, n+1, n+2 with no exceptions and no need to check individual cases by trial, that their product n(n+1)(n+2)n(n+1)(n+2) is always divisible by 66, by separately establishing divisibility by 22 and by 33 and then combining the two facts.

Step 1. Establish divisibility by 22. Among nn and n+1n+1 (a sub-pair already inside the trio), one is always even, since consecutive integers alternate between even and odd. An even number multiplied by anything stays even, so n(n+1)(n+2)n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 22.

Step 2. Establish divisibility by 33. Every whole number leaves remainder 00, 11, or 22 when divided by 33. Whichever remainder nn leaves, checking nn, n+1n+1, n+2n+2 in turn shows that exactly one of the three lands on a remainder of 00 — because moving from nn to n+1n+1 to n+2n+2 steps through all three possible remainders in order, wrapping around at most once. So one of the three factors is always a multiple of 33.

Step 3. Combine the two divisibility facts. The product n(n+1)(n+2)n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 22 (Step 1) and by 33 (Step 2). Since 22 and 33 have no common factor other than 11 (that is, gcd⁡(2,3)=1\gcd(2,3)=1), a number divisible by both must be divisible by their product, 2×3=62 \times 3 = 6.

Step 4. Confirm the argument is general. Nothing in Steps 1–3 depended on the specific value of nn — the argument holds for n=1n=1 just as it holds for n=100n=100 or n=8n=8. This is why the claim is a proof, not a pattern noticed from a few examples.

Worked example

Prove that 8×9×108 \times 9 \times 10 is divisible by 66, and verify the result by direct division.

Step 1. Identify the three consecutive integers: n=8n=8, n+1=9n+1=9, n+2=10n+2=10.

Step 2. Check divisibility by 22. Among 88 and 1010, both happen to be even, so the trio is certainly divisible by 22 (any one even factor is already enough).

Step 3. Check divisibility by 33. Among 8,9,108, 9, 10, exactly one — namely 9=3×39 = 3 \times 3 — is a multiple of 33, confirming the "one multiple of 33 per block of three" claim.

Step 4. Combine. Since the product is divisible by both 22 and 33, it is divisible by 66.

Step 5. Verify directly. 8×9×10=7208 \times 9 \times 10 = 720, and 720÷6=120720 \div 6 = 120 exactly, with no remainder.

The product 8×9×10=7208\times9\times10 = 720 is divisible by 6, as guaranteed.

Competitive stretch

720720 is in fact divisible by far more than 66 — 720=6×120720 = 6 \times 120 — because 8=238 = 2^3 contributes extra factors of 22 beyond the guaranteed minimum. This does not break the rule: "always divisible by 66" promises a minimum, and specific number choices are free to carry additional factors on top of it.

Common traps

  • Treating "always divisible by 66" as "the product is exactly 66 times something small" — the guarantee is a minimum divisibility, and the actual quotient can be much larger, as with 720=6×120720 = 6 \times 120.
  • Confusing the spacing rule for multiples of 22 (every second number) with the spacing rule for multiples of 33 (every third number) — the two arguments must be made separately, not merged into one.
  • Checking only one or two numerical examples and calling that a proof — a claim about all consecutive integers needs the general algebraic argument with n,n+1,n+2n, n+1, n+2, not a handful of successful trials.
  • Forgetting to identify which factor supplies the 22 and which supplies the 33 when asked to justify an answer — stating the conclusion without the case-by-case reasoning loses marks.

Ask the tutor: Want to try proving the product of four consecutive integers is always divisible by 24, using the same case-by-case style of argument?

Does this rule work for negative consecutive integers too, like -3, -2, -1?

Yes. The parity and multiple-of-33 spacing arguments do not depend on the numbers being positive — among any three consecutive integers, positive or negative, one is still even and one is still a multiple of 33. Check it: (−3)×(−2)×(−1)=−6(-3)\times(-2)\times(-1) = -6, and −6÷6=−1-6 \div 6 = -1 exactly, so the claim holds. The algebraic argument with n,n+1,n+2n, n+1, n+2 covers negative starting values just as well, since nothing in the reasoning assumed nn was positive.

Is the product of four consecutive integers always divisible by 24?

Yes, and it follows the same style of reasoning extended one step further, though Class 8 only requires you to justify the k=2k=2 and k=3k=3 cases. The general pattern — the product of kk consecutive integers is always divisible by k!k! — gives 4!=244! = 24 for four consecutive integers. Try 5×6×7×8=16805\times6\times7\times8 = 1680, and 1680÷24=701680 \div 24 = 70 exactly. This is stated here only as enrichment, not as something you need to prove at this level.

Why can't I just test a few examples and call the divisibility rule proven?

Because testing examples only shows the rule works for the numbers you tried — it cannot rule out some future starting value breaking the pattern. A genuine proof has to work for an arbitrary, unspecified nn, which is exactly what writing the integers as n,n+1,n+2n, n+1, n+2 and reasoning about remainders achieves: the argument never uses a specific number, so it automatically covers every possible case at once, including numbers far too large to check by hand.

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